Certification Answers

A company budgeted 1,200 washers, but only 1,000 are produced. It costs $10 to produce a widget. What is the materials variance?

  1.  200
  2.  2000
  3.  350
  4.  20

Correct Answer:

  •  200

 

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any other questions.

Q1. Which statement is not an advantage of robotic process automation (RPA)?

Q2. What effect does a contra asset account have on a balance sheet?

Q3. Internal controls may be preventative, detective, corrective, or directive. Which is a detective control?

Q4. On March 15, a business receives an invoice from the power company for utilities used in February. The retailer pays the invoice on April 1. The business uses accrual-based accounting. Which month should the business recognize the expense?

Q5. Which choice is a general guideline for adequate separation of duties to prevent both fraud and error?

Q6. What does the cost of a unit of product under absorption costing method consist of?

Q7. Which answer best describes accruals and deferrals?

Q8. What do you call a situation where more than one person collaborates to circumvent existing internal controls?

Q9. Which is not an example of an internal control activity?

[source] 'MT: bank recons are a internal control, checking to see if figures match. Approval by different level of authorities help to prevent unathorized transactions - so its a control too. segregate duties also ensures that.

Q10. Which budgeting approach request justification of all expenditures?

Q11. What does the discontinued operations section of the income statement refer to?

Q12. How are the three financial statements (income statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement) linked?

[source]'MT: odd qns. But it should be net profit "npat" flows to retained earnings, and also starts the cashflow statement (so all linked and not independent). Assets are in balance sheet, net income is in income statement. npat goes to retained earnings, not gross profit.

Q13. Which is not one of the four perspectives of the balanced scorecard?

Q14. What would be deducted from the balance per books when doing a bank reconciliation?

Q15. What situation could be the results of the three retails store employees sharing the same cash register?

Q16. A firm has $1,000 in debt and $3,000 in assets. What is the firm's debt-to-equity ratio?

Q17. An external auditor is required to be independent when performing

Reference 'MT: tough qns, ambiguous options. Attest = validate audit data gathered. Consulting is less regulatory/ restrictive, = how to increase pie sales, versus audit/attestation = why you reported more pies in your fridge than we observed. Tax is grey, usually has to be internal audt committee approved or fees disclosed etc. but there are exceptions.'

Q18. Proper segregation of functional responsibilities calls for separation of

Reference

Q19. What does the degree of operating leverage represent?

[Reference]'High operating leverage means a firm has a relatively fixed, and usually high cost base. So additional sales would incrementally drive more profits because those sales do not need to incur more costs to generate (like a factory, versus factory workers)'

Q20. Which characteristic would concern an auditor about the risk of material misstatements arising from fraudulent financial reporting?

[source]'MT: regular bank recons and loyal employees are +ve. Nothing wrong with assets sold at lost before fully depreciated, like you can sell a plane at a loss even before it has been "fully used".

Q21. An employee who makes a sale, ships the goods, and bills the customer violates which control activity?

Reference

Q22. What trait distinguishes auditors from accountants?

[source]'MT: auditors are focused on gathering and interpreting audit evidence in specific sectors. Both auditors and accountants would be familiar to the principles that the client operates in'

Q23. What is the purpose of an operational audit?

Q24. Which statement is false?

Reference 'MT: BSC is on improving efficiency - deliver goals and how to measure that quantitatively or qualitatively. Nothing to do with how to compensate'

Q25. Which choice is not a component of internal control?

Q26. What is the difference between the cost of an asset and the accumulated depreciation for that asset?

Q27. A company budgeted 1,200 washers, but only 1,000 are produced. It costs $10 to produce a widget. What is the materials variance?

Q28. Who does an audit committee report to?

Q29. A business purchased office equipment by issuing a one-year note payable. The entire amount of the note is due at the end of one year. How do you record this transaction?

[source]'MT answer - its Debit equipment (asset), Credit notes payable (liability). To +/- assets, need to dr/cr, inverse is true for liabilities. Long-form journal entry is: Borrow cash - Dr cash, Cr notes payable, then for equipment purchase - Dr equipment, Cr cash'

Q30. Which section of a financial annual report describes the corporation's accounting methods?

Q31. What does "independence" mean in auditing?

Reference

Q32. What would cause a bank to increase a depositor's account?

[source]'MT: depositor account os a liability to the bank - bank owes the money to depositor. bank collects a notes receivable from client means reducing client's cash/ deposits. Similar if NSF means the cheque owner does not have enough funds to transfer funds into the client's deposits, so theres no change in deposits.'

Q33. Which statement about current liabilities is true?

Reference Current liabilities are a company's short-term financial obligations that are due within one year or within a normal operating cycle.

Q34. How do variable costs and fixed costs act within the relevant range?

Reference While variable costs tend to remain flat, the impact of fixed costs on a company's bottom line can change based on the number of products it produces.

Q35. Which answer can be defined as an investment center's contribution margin less the fixed costs that are traceable to the investment center?

Reference Contribution Margin = Sales Revenue – Variable Costs Segment Margin = Segment’s Contribution Margin – Fixed Costs traced to the Segment

Q36. If an auditor is expected to detect the overstatement of sales, what should the auditor trace transactions from?

Reference Which audit procedure is most effective in testing credit sales for overstatement? Vouch a sample recorded sales from the sales journal to shipping documents.

Q37. What is the formal method of analysis applied by management to identify appropriate cost drivers and effects on the costs of production?

[Reference]Activity analysis involves studying and evaluating the activities and processes within an organization to understand their cost implications. It helps in identifying the key activities that drive costs and analyzing their relationship with various cost drivers. By understanding these relationships, management can make informed decisions to optimize costs and improve overall efficiency..

Q38. When independent auditors are able to maintain their actual independence, it is referred to as independence in ____.

Reference In Accounting Series Release no. 269, the SEC defined independence in fact and independence in appearance as separate but equally necessary factors in establishing the auditor’s objectivity and integrity when certifying financial statements filed with the commission by an issuer of securities. Few would debate that independence in fact—that is, that the auditor is actually unbiased—is absolutely essential to the validity of an audit.

Q39. When applying a cost-volume-profit analysis (CVP), certain assumptions must be respected. Which answer is not one of these assumptions?

Reference

CVP assumes the following:

  • Constant sales price;
  • Constant variable cost
  • Constant total fixed cost
  • Units sold equal units produced.

These are simplifying, largely linearizing assumptions, which are often implicitly assumed in elementary discussions of costs and profits.

Q40. Which statement about a perpetual inventory system is true?

I'm not 100% sure on this.

Reference

Perpetual inventory is a method of accounting for inventory that records the sale or purchase of inventory immediately through the use of computerized point-of-sale systems and enterprise asset management software.

Q41. Which type of business would be most likely to use a job order costing system?

Reference

Since lawyers and accountants work with different clients on unique accounts, many will use a job order costing system to track how much time and resources were used for each customer.

Q42. Assigning indirect costs to specific jobs is completed by _.

I'm not 100% sure on this.

Reference

Indirect cost rate calculations can be determined by dividing an indirect cost by a cost object, such as sales revenues or square footage.

Q43. Which is an assurance engagement?

Reference

Q44. What is conversion cost the sum of?

Reference

Q45. Under a perpetual inventory system, merchandise is purchased on account. What is the correct journal entry for this purchase?

Reference

Q46. Which is not a task usually associated with activity-based costing (ABC)?

Reference

Q47. What is true when the units in ending inventory increase during the year?

Q48. When independent auditors are able to maintain their actual independence, itis referred to as independence in__.

Q49. What is the formal method of analysis applied by management to identify appropriate cost drivers and effects on the costs of production?

Reference

Q50. When do you expect to apply job costing over process costing?

Reference

Q51. Robinson Hotels is trying to predict its utility costs. It has five years of data, including monthly utility cost, monthly occupancy rates, and average monthly temperature. What tool or technique can Robinson Hotels use to predict or estimate its future utility costs?

Q52. What does an inventory-turnover ratio measure?

Q53. A company earned a gross profit of $4,000,000 and had net sales of $12,000,000. What is the gross margin and what does the result imply to the reviewer?

Q54. What type of cost changes in proportion to a company's production volume?

Q55. What do you call the benefit sacrificed when one option is chosen over another?

Q56. The actual price of a widget is $10 and the budgeted price is $7. What is the price variance for 1,000 widgets?

Actual Cost = $10 per widget Budgeted Cost = $7 per widget Quantity = 1,000 widgets

Price Variance = (Actual Cost – Budgeted Cost) x Quantity Price Variance = ($10 – $7) x 1,000 Price Variance = $3 x 1,000 Price Variance = $3,000

Therefore, the price variance for 1,000 widgets is $3,000.

Q57. What is the major financial accounting report system used outside of the United States?

Q58. What type of audit evidence would be considered the weakest type?

Q59. Permanent accounts are on what financial statement?

Q60. The cost of alternative X is $25,000 and the cost of alternative Y is $20,000. What do you call the $5,000 cost difference?

Q61. What is the purpose of a master budget?

Q62. What is true about an internal control system?

Q63. According to cost formula Y = $20,000 + $4x, what would be the total cost at an activity level of 15,000 units?

Q64. A company can change to a new accounting principle if management can justify that the change will result in what?

Q65. Which cost items would be classified as an internal failure cost on a quality costs report?

Q66. What type of audit evidence would most likely be used to verify the existence of fixed assets?

Q67. What should an auditor do before auditing the balance sheet?

Q68. At McKay Company, machine hours are limited. There is more demand for McKay's products than it can produce due to limited machine hours. To maximize profits, the company should evaluate each product's _.

To determine the contribution margin per machine hour, the contribution margin for a product is divided by the number of machine hours required to produce that product. This calculation results in the amount of contribution margin earned for each machine hour used.

Q69. The asset-turnover ratio calculation measures _.

Q70. What cost is easily traceable to a cost object?

Q71. Which value chain element is associated with the cost of staffing a customer support phone line?

Q72. Flexible budgets are created to demonstrate how _.

Q73. Which is the appropriate term for an incurred cost that cannot be changed by any decision?

Q74. Which factor is most likely to increase an auditor's awareness of possible fraudulent financial reporting?

Questions & Answers

A business purchased office equipment by issuing a one-year note payable. The entire amount of the note is due at the end of one year. How do you record this transaction?

  1. Debt asset, credit equity
  2. Debt liablity, credit asset.
  3. Debit asset, credit liability
  4. Debit equity, credit asset.

Correct Answer:

  • Debit asset, credit liability

An employee who makes a sale, ships the goods, and bills the customer violates which control activity?

  1. assignment of responsibility
  2. audit verification
  3. segregation of duties
  4. review and reconciliation

Correct Answer:

  • segregation of duties

An external auditor is required to be independent when performing

  1. all attestation services
  2. all professional services (wrong ans, includes consulting)
  3. all tax services
  4. all consulting engagements (wrong ans)

Correct Answer:

  • all attestation services

‘MT: tough qns, ambiguous options. Attest = validate audit data gathered. Consulting is less regulatory/ restrictive, = how to increase pie sales, versus audit/attestation = why you reported more pies in your fridge than we observed. Tax is grey, usually has to be internal audt committee approved or fees disclosed etc. but there are exceptions.’

How are the three financial statements (income statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement) linked?

  1. Only the assets are reflected in the cash flow statement, and the net income expenses correlate with the liabilities.
  2. The net income goes to retained earnings, but the cash flow remains independent.
  3. The gross profit goes to retained earning, and the shareholder equity total is added to the cash flow statement
  4. The net income goes to the retained earning and to the cash flow statement

Correct Answer:

  • The net income goes to the retained earning and to the cash flow statement

‘MT: odd qns. But it should be net profit “npat” flows to retained earnings, and also starts the cashflow statement (so all linked and not independent). Assets are in balance sheet, net income is in income statement. npat goes to retained earnings, not gross profit.

Internal controls may be preventative, detective, corrective, or directive. Which is a detective control?

  1. data backups
  2. physical inventory check
  3. employee background checks
  4. physical locks on inventory warehouse

Correct Answer:

  • physical inventory check

Proper segregation of functional responsibilities calls for separation of

  1. custody, payment, and recording
  2. authorization, custody, and execution
  3. authorization, custody, and recording
  4. custody, execution, and payment

Correct Answer:

  • authorization, custody, and recording

What do you call a situation where more than one person collaborates to circumvent existing internal controls?

  1. assigned responsibility
  2. segregation of duties
  3. fraud prevention
  4. collusion

Correct Answer:

  • collusion

What does “independence” mean in auditing?

  1. being an advocate for all clients
  2. not being dependent on a client’s fee
  3. having only indirect financial interests in the auditee
  4. taking an unbiased viewpoint

Correct Answer:

  • taking an unbiased viewpoint

What does the cost of a unit of product under absorption costing method consist of?

  1. direct materials, direct and indirect labor, and fixed overhead
  2. direct materials, indirect labor, and variable and fixed overhead
  3. direct materials, direct labor, and both variable and fixed overhead
  4. direct materials, direct and indirect labor, and variable overhead

Correct Answer:

  • direct materials, direct labor, and both variable and fixed overhead

What does the degree of operating leverage represent?

  1. how much the value of capital assets will change in response to a change in sales
  2. how much the operating income of a company will change in response to a change in sales
  3. the valuation of assets to determine how much additional debt the company can borrow
  4. how much the sales of a company will change in response to a change in operating income

Correct Answer:

  • how much the operating income of a company will change in response to a change in sales

[source] ‘High operating leverage means a firm has a relatively fixed, and usually high cost base. So additional sales would incrementally drive more profits because those sales do not need to incur more costs to generate (like a factory, versus factory workers)’

What does the discontinued operations section of the income statement refer to?

  1. disposal of a major product line or major geographical area of operations
  2. sale of unused or obsolete equipment and discontinued inventory
  3. plant shutdown or decommissioning of a facility
  4. net income or loss for products completed and sold

Correct Answer:

  • disposal of a major product line or major geographical area of operations

What effect does a contra asset account have on a balance sheet?

  1. A contra asset is not an accounting term
  2. A contra asset has a credit balance and therefore a negative effect on total assets
  3. A contra asset with a positive balance will increase overall liabilities
  4. A contra asset has a debit balance and therefore a positive effect on total assets

Correct Answer:

  • A contra asset has a credit balance and therefore a negative effect on total assets

What is the difference between the cost of an asset and the accumulated depreciation for that asset?

  1. depreciation value
  2. prepaid asset
  3. depreciation expense
  4. book value

Correct Answer:

  • book value

What is the purpose of an operational audit?

  1. assessing the company’s compliance with environmental laws and regulations
  2. evaluating whether the organization is meeting the metrics set by management in order to achieve the goals and objectives set forth by the board of directors
  3. assessing the organization’s control mechanisms for overall efficiency and reliability
  4. evaluating compliance with applicable laws, regulations, policies, and procedures

Correct Answer:

  • evaluating whether the organization is meeting the metrics set by management in order to achieve the goals and objectives set forth by the board of directors

What situation could be the results of the three retails store employees sharing the same cash register?

  1. a thorough internal control activity
  2. a violation of assignment of responsibility
  3. a violation of segregation of duties
  4. a support process to avoid fraud

Correct Answer:

  • a violation of assignment of responsibility

What trait distinguishes auditors from accountants?

  1. The auditor can interpret accounting principles applicable to the country in which the client operates.
  2. The auditor has extensive education beyond what is required for an accountant
  3. The auditor can adapt to a rapidly changing profession.
  4. The auditor has expertise in the gathering and interpretation of audit evidence.

Correct Answer:

  • The auditor has expertise in the gathering and interpretation of audit evidence.

[source] ‘MT: auditors are focused on gathering and interpreting audit evidence in specific sectors. Both auditors and accountants would be familiar to the principles that the client operates in’

What would be deducted from the balance per books when doing a bank reconciliation?

  1. deposits in transit
  2. bank service fees
  3. outstating checks
  4. electronic fund transfers/payments

Correct Answer:

  • outstating checks

What would cause a bank to increase a depositor’s account?

  1. collecting a note receivable
  2. paying a note payable
  3. NSF checks (“non sufficient funds”)
  4. service changes

Correct Answer:

  • paying a note payable

[source] ‘MT: depositor account os a liability to the bank – bank owes the money to depositor. bank collects a notes receivable from client means reducing client’s cash/ deposits. Similar if NSF means the cheque owner does not have enough funds to transfer funds into the client’s deposits, so theres no change in deposits.’

Which answer best describes accruals and deferrals?

  1. Accruals are past cash receipts and payments, while deferrals are expected future cash receipts and payments.
  2. Both accruals and deferrals are both expected future cash receipts and payments.
  3. Accruals are expected future cash receipts and payments, while deferrals are past cash receipts and payments.
  4. Both accruals and deferrals are not expected past cash receipts and payments.

Correct Answer:

  • Accruals are expected future cash receipts and payments, while deferrals are past cash receipts and payments.

Which budgeting approach request justification of all expenditures?

  1. zero-based budgeting
  2. master budgeting
  3. rolling budgets
  4. bottom-up budgeting

Correct Answer:

  • zero-based budgeting

Which characteristic would concern an auditor about the risk of material misstatements arising from fraudulent financial reporting?

  1. limited employee turnover within the accounting and finance department
  2. management’s disregard of regulations and regulatory authorities
  3. regularly reported bank reconciliations, including deposits in transit
  4. capital assets sold at a loss before being depreciated fully

Correct Answer:

  • management’s disregard of regulations and regulatory authorities

[source] ‘MT: regular bank recons and loyal employees are +ve. Nothing wrong with assets sold at lost before fully depreciated, like you can sell a plane at a loss even before it has been “fully used”.

Which choice is a general guideline for adequate separation of duties to prevent both fraud and error?

  1. A person who has control over an asset should not safeguard that asset.
  2. A person who has temporary or permanent custody of an asset should not account for that asset.
  3. A person who has record-keeping responsibility should not make journal entries.
  4. A person who has operational responsibility should not authorize transactions for the area.

Correct Answer:

  • A person who has record-keeping responsibility should not make journal entries.

Which choice is not a component of internal control?

  1. information and communication
  2. risk mitigation
  3. monitoring
  4. control environment

Correct Answer:

  • risk mitigation

Which is not an example of an internal control activity?

  1. review of manufacturing plan
  2. segregation of duties
  3. bank reconciliations
  4. approval process

Correct Answer:

  • review of manufacturing plan

[source] ‘MT: bank recons are a internal control, checking to see if figures match. Approval by different level of authorities help to prevent unathorized transactions – so its a control too. segregate duties also ensures that.

Which is not one of the four perspectives of the balanced scorecard?

  1. internal business
  2. learning and growth
  3. quantitative
  4. customer

Correct Answer:

  • quantitative

Which section of a financial annual report describes the corporation’s accounting methods?

  1. Notes to the financial statements
  2. An auditor’s report
  3. Listing of the stockholders
  4. Management discussion and analysis

Correct Answer:

  • Notes to the financial statements

Which statement is false?

  1. The balanced scorecard aligns an organization’s operational activities with its mission.
  2. The balanced scorecard focuses on four primary areas: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. (def true)
  3. The balanced scorecard measures, tracks, and reports on a balance of qualitative and financial data and metrics. (def true)
  4. The balanced scorecard ensures the organization’s profitability aligns with director compensation and dividend expectations.

Correct Answer:

  • The balanced scorecard ensures the organization’s profitability aligns with director compensation and dividend expectations.

Which statement is not an advantage of robotic process automation (RPA)?

  1. Bots are more creative than humans
  2. Bots do no need to take time off
  3. Bots improve efficiency
  4. Bots can eliminate human errors

Correct Answer:

  • Bots are more creative than humans

Who does an audit committee report to?

  1. external auditors
  2. senior management
  3. board of directors
  4. union of employee representatives

Correct Answer:

  • external auditors

This page was last edited on 3rd February, 2024 at 4:39 PM (UTC).

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